SCFHS-USMLE-Questions

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Repeated SCFHS / USMLE Questions

Table of Contents
Question 1

A 72-year-old man presents to the office for evaluation of new symptoms. He has a history of cancer and takes chemotherapeutic treatment. Now he complains of dyspnea and mild fatigue since last week. Examination reveals temperature of 98.3 F, pulse of 80/min, blood pressure of 140/86 and respiratory rate of 22/min. On chest auscultation, there are crackles on both lung bases with no wheezes. A chest x-ray shows bilateral diffuse interstitial markings. Which of the following agents is responsible for this patient’s new features?
  • A. Bleomycin.
  • B. Cisplatin.
  • C. Cyclophosphamide.
  • D. Etoposide.
  • E. Paclitaxel.

Check your answer ...


Question 2

Which of the following medications acts to prevent cholesterol absorption at small intestine brush border?

  • A. Cholestyramine.
  • B. Colestipol.
  • C. Ezetimibe.
  • D. Gemfibrozil.

Check your answer ...


Question 3

Alcohol is oxidized in the liver by which one of the following enzymes?
  • A. Alcohol decarboxylase.
  • B. Alcohol dehydrogenase.
  • C. Alcohol oxidase.
  • D. Alcohol reductase.

Check your answer ...


Question 4

Which of the following is the main mechanism of action of methylergonovine in treating postpartum hemorrhage?
  • A. Blocking sympathetic stimulation.
  • B. Forceful contraction of myometrium.
  • C. Instant blood coagulation.
  • D. Strong vasoconstriction.

Check your answer ...


Question 5

Which of the following tests is most likely used to rule out congestive heart failure in a case of cardiomegaly during pregnancy?
  • A. Arterial blood gas.
  • B. Echocardiography.
  • C. Electrocardiogram (ECG).
  • D. MRI of the chest.

Check your answer ...


Question 6

4-month-old boy is brought to the clinic for a routine examination. Which of the following vaccines should be administered at this visit?
  • A. DTaP.
  • B. MMR.
  • C. Oral polio vaccine.
  • D. Varicella.

Check your answer ...


Question 7

Which of the following medications is most likely prescribed in cases of asthma associated with chronic environmental allergies?
  • A. Albuterol inhaler.
  • B. Fluticasone nasal spray.
  • C. Oral fexofenadine.
  • D. Oral montelukast.

Check your answer ...


Question 8

Which of the following statements correctly describes the relative risk of a study?
  • A. Odds that the group with a disease was exposed to a risk factor divided by odds that the group without the disease was exposed.
  • B. Risk of developing disease in the exposed group divided by risk in the unexposed group.
  • C. The difference in risk between exposed and unexposed groups.
  • D. The proportion of risk reduction attributable to the intervention as compared to a control.

Check your answer ...


Question 9

Which one of the following blotting procedures is the best for studying mRNA levels?
  • A. Northern blot.
  • B. Southern blot.
  • C. Southwestern blot.
  • D. Western blot.

Check your answer ...


Question 10

Which of the following is the most likely route of transmission of herpes simplex virus?
  • A. Congenital transfusion.
  • B. Food contamination.
  • C. Respiratory secretions and saliva.
  • D. Sexual contact and perinatal.

Check your answer ...


Question 11

The tracheal tube is originated from which of the following structures?
  • A. Ductus arteriosus.
  • B. Foregut.
  • C. Fourth pharyngeal arch.
  • D. Third pharyngeal arch.

Check your answer ...


Question 12

Which of the following endocrine disorders is characterized by high blood pressure, sodium and water retention, low potassium level and decreased renin activity?
  • A. Addison’s disease.
  • B. Pheochromocytoma.
  • C. Primary hyperaldosteronism.
  • D. Secondary hyperaldosteronism.

Check your answer ...


Question 13

Which of the following is the mechanism of action of digoxin to increase cardiac contractility?
  • A. Inhibition of K/Ca ATPase.
  • B. Inhibition of Na/Ca ATPase.
  • C. Inhibition of Na/K ATPase.
  • D. Inhibition of phosphodiesterase.

Check your answer ...


Question 14

If the prevalence of a disease is 10%, what is the chance that randomly selected 3 persons out of this population will all have the disease?
  • A. 0.1.
  • B. 0.01.
  • C. 0.001.
  • D. 0.0001.

Check your answer ...


Question 15

Which one of the following neoplasms is the most likely related to HIV infection?
  • A. Burkitt’s lymphoma.
  • B. Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
  • C. Kaposi sarcoma.
  • D. Myelocytic leukemia.

Check your answer ...


Question 16

Conversion of ethanol to acetate will result in increase production of which of the following?
  • A. NAD.
  • B. NADH.
  • C. Oxaloacetate.
  • D. Pyruvate.

Check your answer ...


Question 17

Bioavailability of a medication is maximal when it has which of the following factors?
  • A. High ionization.
  • B. High lipid solubility.
  • C. High plasma binding.
  • D. High water solubility.

Check your answer ...


Question 18

Which of the following is the major indication of ondansetron in patients receiving chemotherapy?
  • A. Hair loss.
  • B. Nausea and vomiting.
  • C. Headache.
  • D. GERD.

Check your answer ...


Question 19

Prazosin blocks which of the following actions of epinephrine?
  • A. Bronchodilation.
  • B. High stroke volume.
  • C. Mydriasis.
  • D. Tachycardia.

Check your answer ...


Question 20

Risk of rupture of abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is increased by all the following factors EXCEPT?
  • A. Male gender.
  • B. Increased aortic wall stress.
  • C. Smoking.
  • D. Uncontrolled hypertension.

Check your answer ...


Question 21

Which of the following conditions is associated with the presence of non-inflammatory follicular papules (comedones)?
  • A. Acne vulgaris.
  • B. Atopic dermatitis.
  • C. Bullous pemphigoid.
  • D. Pemphigus vulgaris.

Check your answer ...


Question 22

Which of the following conditions is most likely caused by oversecretion of growth hormone in adults (acromegaly)?
  • A. Carpal tunnel syndrome.
  • B. Gastric adenocarcinoma.
  • C. Hypothyroidism.
  • D. Malignant melanoma.

Check your answer ...


Question 23

Which of the following is responsible for the wrinkled appearance of the scrotum?
  • A. Dartos fascia.
  • B. Pampiniform plexus.
  • C. Thickened keratinized epithelium.
  • D. Tunica albuginea.

Check your answer ...


Question 24

Which of the following is a serious complication of ergotamine?
  • A. Depression.
  • B. Pampiniform plexus.
  • C. Hypotension.
  • D. Prolonged vasospasm.

Check your answer ...


Question 25

Regulation of which of the following regions is mostly dependent on extrinsic nerves?
  • A. Large intestine.
  • B. Lower esophagus.
  • C. Small intestine.
  • D. Upper esophagus.

Check your answer ...


Question 26

Which of the following statements correctly describes the therapeutic dose of medication?
  • A. The amount of medication that produces maximal rate of distribution.
  • B. The amount of medication that produces minimal biological effect.
  • C. The amount of medication that produces the highest plasma concentration of the drug.
  • D. The amount of medication that produces the required effect in the majority of patients.

Check your answer ...


Question 27

Dry or “sandy eyes” is seen after administration of large doses of which one of the following medications?
  • A. Atropine.
  • B. Carbacho.
  • C. Pilocarpine.
  • D. Timolol.

Check your answer ...


Question 28

Which of the following medications is considered irreversible alpha receptor antagonist?
  • A. Labetalol.
  • B. Phenoxybenzamine.
  • C. Prazosin.
  • D. Tolazoline.

Check your answer ...


Question 29

Which of the following is the most common cancer of the lower third of esophagus in non-alcoholic, non-smoker patients?
  • A. Adenocarcinoma.
  • B. Melanoma.
  • C. Sarcoma.
  • D. Squamous cell carcinoma.

Check your answer ...


Question 30

Which of the following muscles are responsible for primary abduction of the arm at the shoulder joint?
  • A. Coracobrachialis and deltoid.
  • B. Deltoid and infraspinatus.
  • C. Deltoid and supraspinatus.
  • D. Supraspinatus and infraspinatus.

Check your answer ...


Question 31

Which of the following is the cellular mechanism of epinephrine?
  • A. Activation of adenylyl cyclase.
  • B. Activation of acetylcholinesterase.
  • C. Activation of phospholipase.
  • D. Inhibition of adenylyl cyclase.

Check your answer ...


Question 32

Which one of the following medications is used for cases of Parkinson’s disease and influenza type A?
  • A. Amantadine.
  • B. Benztropine.
  • C. Bromocriptine.
  • D. Ribavirin.

Check your answer ...


Question 33

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the apex of the upright lung compared to its base?
  • A. Alveoli are more compliant at the apex than at the base.
  • B. Alveoli are smaller at the apex than at the base.
  • C. Blood perfusion is lower at the apex than at the base.
  • D. Ventilation/perfusion ratio is lower at the apex than at the base.

Check your answer ...


Question 34

A 60-year-old man complains of sudden onset of fever, jaundice, right upper abdominal pain and ascites. Liver biopsy shows areas of swelling and necrosis with neutrophilic infiltration. What is the diagnosis?
  • A. Acetaminophen toxicity.
  • B. Alcoholic hepatitis.
  • C. Fatty liver.
  • D. Budd-Chiari syndrome.

Check your answer ...


Question 35

Which of the following statements correctly describes the volume of distribution of a drug?
  • A. It is a kinetic parameter that correlates dose with plasma level of a drug at zero time.
  • B. It is the capacity of a drug to attach to plasma protein.
  • C. It is the concentration of the drug in plasma at a certain time.
  • D. It is the rate of diffusion of the drug through intracellular component.

Check your answer ...


Question 36

Deficiency of which of the following enzymes is associated with von Gierke’s disease?
  • A. α-1,4-phosphorylase.
  • B. Glucose-6-phosphatase.
  • C. Hexosaminidase A.
  • D. Phosphofructokinase-1.

Check your answer ...


Question 37

Which of the following differentiates HIV virus from RNA tumor viruses?
  • A. HIV virus contains 2 copies of RNA.
  • B. HIV virus contains the pol gene.
  • C. HIV virus has a cytolytic activity.
  • D. HIV virus is a retrovirus.

Check your answer ...


Question 38

Which of the following anticoagulant medications works by binding to thrombin and inhibiting it?
  • A. Heparin.
  • B. Hirudin.
  • C. Warfarin.
  • D. Ticlopidine.

Check your answer ...


Question 39

In cases of atrial septal defect (ASD), foramen ovale is formed by incomplete development of which one of the following structures?
  • A. Ostium primum.
  • B. Ostium secundum.
  • C. Septum primum.
  • D. Septum secundum.

Check your answer ...


Question 40

Which of the following regions of the brain is most likely affected in patients with Huntington’s disease?
  • A. Anterior frontal lobe.
  • B. Caudate nucleus.
  • C. Substantia nigra.
  • D. Temporal lobe.

Check your answer ...


Question 41

Which of the following types of receptors are associated with the slowest response time?
  • A. G-protein coupled receptors.
  • B. Ion channel receptors.
  • C. Steroid receptors.
  • D. Transmembrane enzyme receptors.

Check your answer ...


Question 42

Which of the following tests would most likely indicates the etiology of vitamin B12 deficiency anemia?
  • A. Complete blood count (CBC).
  • B. Coomb’s test.
  • C. Osmotic fragility test.
  • D. Schilling test.

Check your answer ...


Question 43

Which of the following is the most serious contraindication of electroconvulsive therapy?
  • A. History of fracture.
  • B. History of seizures.
  • C. Meningioma.
  • D. Old age.

Check your answer ...


Question 44

Which of the following organisms is responsible for the development of oral hairy leukoplakia in HIV patients?
  • A. Bartonella henselae.
  • B. Candida albicans.
  • C. Epstein-Barr virus.
  • D. Human papilloma virus.

Check your answer ...


Question 45

Which of the following pathological terms describes the disordered, non-neoplastic cell growth?
  • A. Anaplasia.
  • B. Dysplasia.
  • C. Metaplasia.
  • D. Neoplasia.

Check your answer ...


Question 46

Which of the following medications may cause acute cholestatic hepatitis?
  • A. Acarbose.
  • B. Colchicine.
  • C. Erythromycin.
  • D. Metformin.

Check your answer ...


Question 47

Which of the following laboratory tests could be slightly increased in Gilbert’s syndrome?
  • A. Bilirubin, direct.
  • B. Bilirubin, indirect.
  • C. Haptoglobin.
  • D. Triglyceride.

Check your answer ...


Question 48

A neonate presents by renal failure and pulmonary hypoplasia. What is your diagnosis?
  • A. Niemann-Pick disease.
  • B. Phenylketonuria.
  • C. Pompe disease.
  • D. Recessive polycystic kidney disease.

Check your answer ...


Question 49

Which of the following receptors is inhibited by ondansetron to treat nausea following chemotherapy?
  • A. Dopamine receptors.
  • B. Muscarinic receptors.
  • C. Nicotinic receptors.
  • D. Serotonin 5-HT receptors.

Check your answer ...


Question 50

Which of the following conditions is considered a physiological change for normal pregnancy?
  • A. Decreased blood volume.
  • B. Decreased body weight.
  • C. Decreased GI tone and motility.
  • D. Decreased respiratory tidal volume.

Check your answer ...


Question 51

A decrease of J chain due to a genetic defect will cause a decrease of the which of the following?
  • A. Mature B lymphocytes.
  • B. Mature T lymphocytes.
  • C. Serum IgE.
  • D. Serum IgM.

Check your answer ...


Question 52

Which of the following agents reduce the blood levels of certain drugs through its action on hepatic P450 system?
  • A. Grapefruit juice.
  • B. Guava juice.
  • C. Kava.
  • D. St. John’s wart.

Check your answer ...


Question 53

Which of the following is the most common cause of nasal obstruction and bleeding in adolescents?
  • A. Angiofibroma.
  • B. Nasal cancer.
  • C. Nasal polyps.
  • D. Papilloma.

Check your answer ...


Question 54

What is the most common injury resulting from wearing a heavy backpack for a long time?
  • A. Costoclavicular syndrome.
  • B. Frozen shoulder.
  • C. Rotator cuff injury.
  • D. Shoulder dislocation.

Check your answer ...


Question 55

Deficiency of the enzyme argininosuccinate in urea cycle leads to the accumulation of which one of the following?
  • A. Arginine.
  • B. Argininosuccinate.
  • C. Citrulline.
  • D. Ornithine.

Check your answer ...


Question 56

Epinephrine acts on which one of the following receptors to constrict vascular smooth muscle?
  • A. α1-Adrenoceptors.
  • B. α2-Adrenoceptors.
  • C. β1-Adrenoceptors.
  • D. β2-Adrenoceptors.

Check your answer ...


Question 57

Which of the following is the most prominent side effect of scopolamine?
  • A. Bradycardia.
  • B. Miosis.
  • C. Mydriasis.
  • D. Profuse sweating.

Check your answer ...


Question 58

A middle aged male represents with an edematous circular skin lesion of black eschar. Which of the following bacteria is the most likely the causative organism of this condition?
  • A. Bacillus anthracis.
  • B. Pneumonitis aeruginosa.
  • C. Staphylococcus aureus.
  • D. Streptococcus viridans.

Check your answer ...


Question 59

During spermatogenesis, which type of cells enter meiosis 1 to from primary spermatocytes?
  • A. Primordial germ cells.
  • B. Spermatids.
  • C. Type A spermatocytes.
  • D. Type B spermatocytes.

Check your answer ...


Question 60

Which type of bias is reflected when individuals with severe disease are uncovered because they die first?
  • A. Confounding bias.
  • B. Late-look bias.
  • C. Measurement bias.
  • D. Selection bias.

Check your answer ...


Question 61

Which one of the following medications stimulates muscarinic receptors in airways when inhaled?
  • A. Bethanechol.
  • B. Methacholine.
  • C. Pilocarpine.
  • D. Carbachol.

Check your answer ...


Question 62

Which of the following characterizes syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion?
  • A. Euvolemic hyponatremia with continued Na excretion.
  • B. Hyperosmotic volume contraction.
  • C. Recommended treatment is desmopressin acetate and hydration.
  • D. Serum osmolality is greater than urine osmolality.

Check your answer ...


Question 63

Which of the following organisms is responsible for antibiotic-associated colitis?
  • A. Clostridium difficile.
  • B. Clostridium botulinum.
  • C. Clostridium perfringens.
  • D. Clostridium tetani.

Check your answer ...


Question 64

Which one of the following medications act as bacteriostatic by inhibiting bacterial dihydrofolate reductase?
  • A. Ciprofloxacin.
  • B. Dapsone.
  • C. Sulfamethoxazole.
  • D. Trimethoprim.

Check your answer ...


Question 65

Which of the following statements is true about innate immunity?
  • A. Highly specific and refined over time.
  • B. Its main components are T cells, B cells and circulating antibodies.
  • C. Its main secreted proteins are immunoglobulins.
  • D. Resistance persists through generations.

Check your answer ...


Question 66

Which of the following disorders is most likely related to body dysmorphic disorder?
  • A. Generalized anxiety disorder.
  • B. Malingering.
  • C. Obsessive compulsive disorder.
  • D. Post-traumatic stress disorder.

Check your answer ...


Question 67

Which of the following correctly describes pleiotropy?
  • A. Increased severity of a disease in succeeding generations.
  • B. Not all individuals with mutant genotype show the same mutant phenotype.
  • C. One gene contributes to multiple phenotypic effects.
  • D. Phenotype is always the same among individuals having the same genotype.

Check your answer ...


Question 68

Decreased production of which type of collagen may result in osteogenesis imperfecta?
  • A. Type I.
  • B. Type II.
  • C. Type III.
  • D. Type IV.

Check your answer ...


Question 69

What is the best treatment of gastroparesis in a diabetic patient?
  • A. Gastric resection.
  • B. Metoclopramide.
  • C. Omeprazole.
  • D. Vagotomy.

Check your answer ...


Question 70

Acute decrease in response to a drug after initial or repeated intake is known as which of the following drug interactions?
  • A. Additive.
  • B. Permissive.
  • C. Synergetic.
  • D. Tachyphylactic.

Check your answer ...


Question 71

Which one of the following correctly describes nicotinic Ach receptors?
  • A. Enzyme-linked receptors.
  • B. G-protein–coupled receptors.
  • C. Ligand-gated Na+/K+ channels.
  • D. 7-PASS receptors.

Check your answer ...


Question 72

Which of the following medications is the drug of choice for motion sickness?
  • A. Benztropine.
  • B. Dicyclomine.
  • C. Scopolamine.
  • D. Tolterodine.

Check your answer ...


Question 73

Which one of the following features characterizes Crohn’s disease from ulcerative colitis?
  • A. Bloody diarrhea.
  • B. Colectomy is curative.
  • C. Continuous disease beginning at rectum and extending without skipped areas.
  • D. Perineal fissures and fistulas.

Check your answer ...


Question 74

Which of the following is the main site of action of HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors?
  • A. Blood.
  • B. Liver.
  • C. Kidney.
  • D. GI tract.

Check your answer ...


Question 75

Which of the following management plans is recommended for a case of myocardial infarction with 70% main left stenosis?
  • A. Coronary artery bypass graft (CABG).
  • B. Percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI).
  • C. Percutaneous transluminal coronary angiography (PTCA).
  • D. Pharmacotherapy and observation.

Check your answer ...


Question 76

Which one of these medication groups is contraindicated in a patient with narrow-angle glaucoma?
  • A. Beta blockers.
  • B. Cholinomimetics.
  • C. Diuretics.
  • D. Muscarinic-receptor antagonists.

Check your answer ...


Question 77

Which of the following statements is true about live attenuated vaccine?
  • A. Close contacts of influenza patients can be safely vaccinated with live attenuated vaccine.
  • B. It is mainly used for immunocompromised patients.
  • C. No booster is needed for live attenuated vaccines.
  • D. They only induce humoral immunity.

Check your answer ...


Question 78

Which of the following is not a feature of Tetralogy of Fallot?
  • A. Atrial septal defect.
  • B. Overriding aorta.
  • C. Pulmonary stenosis.
  • D. Right ventricular hypertrophy.

Check your answer ...


Question 79

Naloxone is the treatment of choice of which one of the following toxicities?
  • A. Amitriptyline toxicity.
  • B. Citalopram overdose.
  • C. Hydrocodone toxicity.
  • D. Methylphenidate overdose.

Check your answer ...


Question 80

Administration of clopidogrel with aspirin is an example of which of the following drug interactions?
  • A. Additive.
  • B. Permissive.
  • C. Synergistic.
  • D. Tachyphylactic.

Check your answer ...


Question 81

Which of the following medications prevents cholesterol absorption at small intestine brush border?
  • A. Colestipol.
  • B. Ezetimibe.
  • C. Fenofibrate.
  • D. Niacin.

Check your answer ...


Question 82

A young man complains of syncope, dyspnea and chest pain after exercise. A crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur is heard over the left sternal border without radiation. What is the most likely etiology?
  • A. Aortic dissection.
  • B. Aortic regurgitation.
  • C. Aortic stenosis.
  • D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.

Check your answer ...


Question 83

A 9-month-child who was delivered after premature labor and is feeding on cow milk and orange juice. What is the predicted deficiency?
  • A. Calcium.
  • B. Iron.
  • C. Vitamin D.
  • D. Vitamin E.

Check your answer ...


Question 84

Which of the following is the best next step for a suspicious malignant melanoma?
  • A. Excisional biopsy.
  • B. Observation.
  • C. Shave biopsy.
  • D. Excision with a safety margin.

Check your answer ...


Question 85

Which of the following types of sensations is carried to the thalamus by the anterolateral tracts after crossing the spinal cord?
  • A. Crude touch.
  • B. Fine touch.
  • C. Position.
  • D. Vibrations.

Check your answer ...


Question 86

Gonadotropin-releasing hormones are synthesized by which of the following nuclei of the hypothalamus?
  • A. Arcuate nuclei.
  • B. Dorsomedial nuclei.
  • C. Ventromedial nuclei.
  • D. Anterior nuclei.

Check your answer ...


Question 87

Which of the following substances is responsible for growth of the prostate at puberty?
  • A. Dihydrotestosterone.
  • B. Estrogen.
  • C. Progesterone.
  • D. Testosterone.

Check your answer ...


Question 88

Which one of the following medications inhibits protein synthesis by binding to 50S subunit and preventing the formation of the initiation complex?
  • A. Azithromycin.
  • B. Clindamycin.
  • C. Linezolid.
  • D. Minocycline.

Check your answer ...


Question 89

Which of the following substances is used in mercury poisoning?
  • A. Flumazenil.
  • B. Fomepizole.
  • C. Methylene blue.
  • D. Succimer.

Check your answer ...


Question 90

Which of the following conditions could be a serious side effect of sumatriptan?
  • A. Coronary vasospasm.
  • B. Dilated cardiomyopathy.
  • C. Torsades de pointes.
  • D. Cutaneous flushing.

Check your answer ...


Question 91

Which of the following is a characteristic finding in isopropanol poisoning?
  • A. Blindness due to ocular accumulation.
  • B. Elevated anion gap.
  • C. Elevated serum BUN and creatinine.
  • D. Ketosis without acidosis.

Check your answer ...


Question 92

Which of the following is a major complication of central retinal veins occlusion?
  • A. Cataract.
  • B. Glaucoma.
  • C. Lens subluxation.
  • D. Retinal detachment.

Check your answer ...


Question 93

Which of the following medications is a non-drowsy anti-allergic medication?
  • A. Cetirizine.
  • B. Chlorpheniramine.
  • C. Diphenhydramine.
  • D. Loratadine.

Check your answer ...


Question 94

Which one of the following parts of the cell is the site of steroid synthesis?
  • A. Golgi apparatus.
  • B. Peroxisome.
  • C. Rough endoplasmic reticulum.
  • D. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

Check your answer ...


Question 95

Which of the following errors is considered if the researcher states that there is no difference when one exists?
  • A. Type 1 error.
  • B. Type II error.
  • C. Type III error.
  • D. Type IV error.

Check your answer ...


Question 96

Which one of the following conditions most likely shows lower than normal erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)?
  • A. Giant cell arteritis.
  • B. Multiple myeloma.
  • C. Polycythemia.
  • D. Pregnancy.

Check your answer ...


Question 97

What is the best first step of action for a case of posterior myocardial infarction?
  • A. Aspirin 325 mg administration.
  • B. Metoprolol 60 mg administration.
  • C. Stress test.
  • D. Tissue plasminogen activator.

Check your answer ...


Question 98

Which of the following characterized by painless blisters on the back of the hands with friable surrounding skin and hyperpigmentation of the face?
  • A. Contact dermatitis.
  • B. Dermatitis herpetiformis.
  • C. Herpes Zoster.
  • D. Porphyria cutanea tarda.

Check your answer ...


Question 99

What is the proper treatment of adrenal insufficiency?
  • A. Adrenaline.
  • B. Fludrocortisone.
  • C. Prednisone.
  • D. Prednisone and fludrocortisone.

Check your answer ...


Question 100

Which of the following group of medications prolongs GABA activity in the brain?
  • A. Alcohols.
  • B. Barbiturates.
  • C. Benzodiazepines.
  • D. Methamphetamines.

Check your answer ...


Question 101

Which of the following medications inhibits folic acid synthesis through its effect on dihydropteroate synthetase enzyme?
  • A. Methotrexate.
  • B. Pyrimethamine.
  • C. Sulfonamides.
  • D. Trimethoprim.

Check your answer ...


Question 102

Which of the following is the mechanism of action of misoprostol for the treatment of peptic ulcer?
  • A. Direct inhibition of the proton pump.
  • B. Formation of a protective coating of the ulcer beds.
  • C. Increased mucus and bicarbonates secretion and decreased HCL secretion.
  • D. Suppression of secretory responses to food stimulation.

Check your answer ...


Question 103

Which of the following is the most sensitive test for myocardial infarction?
  • A. Creatine kinase myocardial fraction (CK-MB).
  • B. Lactose dehydrogenase (LDH).
  • C. Troponin-1.
  • D. Troponin-C.

Check your answer ...


Question 104

Which of the following organisms is associated with pneumonia precipitated by aerosolized water (air conditions)?
  • A. Chlamydophila pneumonia.
  • B. Legionella pneumophila.
  • C. Mycoplasma pneumonia.
  • D. Pneumocystis jirovecii.

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Question 105

Which of the following disorders is considered a nephrotic syndrome?
  • A. Alport syndrome.
  • B. Goodpasture syndrome.
  • C. IgA nephropathy (Berger disease).
  • D. Minimal change disease.

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Question 106

Ingestion of which of the following products may cause hypertensive crisis in patients taking MAO inhibitors?
  • A. Carbohydrates such as starch.
  • B. Gluten-rich food.
  • C. Tyramine-rich food.
  • D. Vitamin D and calcium.

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Question 107

Which of the following drugs is the initial therapy for Alzheimer disease?
  • A. Carbachol.
  • B. Donepezil.
  • C. Methacholine.
  • D. Pilocarpine.

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Question 108

Cinchonism is a possible side effect of which one of the following drugs?
  • A. Quinidine.
  • B. Isoniazid.
  • C. Enflurane.
  • D. Metoclopramide.

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Question 109

Which one of the following types of cells myelinates axons of neurons of CNS?
  • A. Astrocytes.
  • B. Microglia.
  • C. Oligodendroglia.
  • D. Schwann cells.

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Question 110

Which one of the following tests is diagnostic for acromegaly?
  • A. Fasting blood glucose level.
  • B. Serum cortisol level.
  • C. Serum growth hormone level.
  • D. Serum insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1).

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